So when the recession hit and the majority of those laid off were men, that was ok. If the 2/3 of government and care workers who are women(which is unequal, btw) gets cut back to 1/2, it is bad because the women are no longer a majority and were the ones dealing with the layoffs?
I wonder, if the total job loss still is still predominantly male, will that get brought up, or will they just only count the last few months when it is female?
If a majority of govt workers are still female (say 59%) will that be meantioned?