I swear I've just heard on BBC radio that in sub-saharan affrica three quarters of those suffering with AIDS are females and then they emphasised that most of this is due to "Their partner's high risk behaviour that they themselves have no control over."
But,, surely this can't be correct? Because if the partners had AIDS then how come only a quarter of the AIDS sufferers are male?
I suspect the figures have been massaged somewhere to highlight females as victims.