A little help please.

Started by daksdaddy, Jan 27, 2005, 12:57 PM

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daksdaddy

http://www.ojp.usdoj.gov/ovc/ncvrw/2003/pg5f.html

Quote
Of all murder victims, 11 percent were killed by an intimate. Of all intimate murder victims, 74 percent were female. Of all female murder victims, about 30 percent were killed by an intimate. (Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS. November, 2001. Intimate Partner Violence and Age of Victim 1993-1999. Washington, DC: U.S. Department of Justice.)


If there were 1000 murder victims, using the stats quoted above
%11 of 1000 = 110 .  %74 of 110 = 74.74 Women dead, as opposed to 1000 - 74.74 = 925.26 Men dead.

But where does this (Of all female murder victims, about 30 percent were killed by an intimate) fit in?

These stats have got me scratchin me noggin.

Could someone help to clarify this for me?
t is perhaps a terrible thing to say, but "rights and freedoms we are not willing to fight for are rights and freedoms we don't deserve."

typhonblue

That means to get the number of murdered females you have to divide 74 by .3:


247

Because 74 is only 30% of the women murdered.

daksdaddy

Thanks Typhon,

The # I came up with was 224.22 female murder victims for every 1000 murders.

I was never learned on how to read statistics.
t is perhaps a terrible thing to say, but "rights and freedoms we are not willing to fight for are rights and freedoms we don't deserve."

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